Anesthesia 2 – Anesthetic Problems and Emergencies Practice Test

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• Which parameter should be used to assess oxygen-carrying capabilities in patients with respiratory disease?
• Acupuncture point used to aid in the treatment of shock, cardiopulmonary arrest, and apnea?
• Which description best differentiates TRALI from TACO?
• Which monitoring modality is used in ALS Step 3 to assess perfusion during CPR?
• The most challenging high-risk anesthesia patient category concerns which disease?
• Using the metatarsal pulse with a Poor Man's Doppler, a 'Present' result indicates BP is at least how many mmHg?
• Emergence delirium in pediatric patients: which practice helps minimize its occurrence?
• If an anesthetized patient is suffering from dyspnea or cyanosis, which part of the anesthesia circuit is activated?
• Obese animals require which direction of dose per kilogram for anesthetics?
• Emergence delirium is more likely to be observed in which population?
• What is the most common cause of death in the postanesthetic period in dogs?
• Which organ dysfunction is listed as a cause of prolonged recovery?
• Which practice helps minimize LAST risk in pediatric patients?
• Anesthesia management strategies for uterine atony causing obstetric hemorrhage?
• Common surgery to animals in respiratory distress, where induction with an injectable agent is preferred over a mask induction?
• Which of the following describes the lipid emulsion dosing and general approach for LAST?
• Which induction agent is safer for Cesarean deliveries?
• For a suspected massive perioperative pulmonary embolism, which therapy is considered if there are no contraindications?
• In thyroid storm, which pharmacologic order is recommended?
• Defibrillation for VF or VT can be delivered using which methods?
• Which hormone can exaggerate certain drug effects and increase the risk of overdose in patients having a Cesarean delivery?
• ECG changes of hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia during anesthesia and how to treat?
• What is the alternate method to chest compressions described for CPR when two people are involved?
• Which is a core component of a massive transfusion protocol?
• Brachycephalic dogs are prone to bradycardia under anesthesia due to their...
• If Asystole or PEA persists longer than 10 minutes, which additional steps are recommended?
• ROSC stands for Return of Spontaneous Circulation. Which of the following statements correctly matches an acronym?
• What is the metabolic oxygen consumption rate that must not be exceeded in a closed anesthetic system?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed cause of prolonged recovery?
• During LAST management, which approach best addresses seizures?
• Which drug should be avoided in hypotensive patients?
• During chest compressions, what depth relative to chest width is recommended?
• What is the recommended action if there is suspected oxygen supply failure in an anesthesia machine?
• Using the metatarsal pulse in a 'Poor Man's Doppler', an 'Absent' result indicates BP is less than how many mmHg?
• Which coexisting disorder listed can prolong recovery?
• After quickly checking for signs of life, what are the next two steps in Basic Life Support?
• What type of oxygen can be delivered to an awake animal with dyspnea during the recovery period by facemask, nasal cannula, E-collar, or oxygen cage/tent?
• If the patient’s heart rate is low, which drug is preferred for inotropic support?
• Before initiating antiarrhythmic therapy, which assessment is recommended to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation?
• What does ETCO2 stand for?
• During stage III anesthesia, which species has a tachycardia threshold of greater than 160 bpm?
• Which strategies help prevent hypothermia and shivering in the perioperative period?
• Intraoperative pulmonary edema, what are the key management steps?
• A laryngeal edema may result from repeated intubation attempts in a cat and they may breathe with an audible ____ or wheeze.
• In cardiac arrest, respiration is absent except for abrupt gasps called?
• Status Epilepticus occurs after ___ minutes?
• An ETCO2 reading of 15 mmHg or higher indicates what during ALS?
• A patient is considered geriatric when they have reached ___% of the average life expectancy for that species/breed.
• Which group has less plasma protein binding of drugs and inefficient hepatic metabolism compared to adults?
• The RECOVER initiative is most closely associated with which field?
• Which acronym stands for Post-Arrest Care?
• Initial treatment for Asystole and PEA includes which combination?
• Before anesthesia in renal disease, dehydration should be corrected.
• Prolonged CRT (>2 seconds) during anesthesia is most often associated with which condition?
• What is post-dural puncture headache and how is it managed after regional anesthesia?
• BLS stands for which of the following?
• How do you recognize endotracheal tube misplacement into the esophagus and what is the immediate management?
• Which factor is listed as a cause of prolonged recovery related to how patients respond to anesthetic drugs?
• What infection prevention considerations are critical for immunocompromised patients undergoing anesthesia?
• ALS stands for which of the following?
• Which description best matches the fluids and delivery method used for neonates and pediatric patients during anesthesia?
• DIC in obstetric hemorrhage: recognition and management priorities?
• In cats, dyspnea during the recovery period is usually caused by which condition?
• In LAST management, which agent is used to treat seizures?
• Preoperative fasting in neonates and pediatric patients can cause which complications?
• Patients with hepatic disease are prone to __________ under anesthesia.
• Which is the most common cause of prolonged recovery?
• Which of the following is NOT a warning sign of respiratory arrest?
• Key intraoperative management considerations for pheochromocytoma crisis?
• For patients with cardiovascular disease, they are at risk for ___________ even if we are using a standard rate for a healthy animal.
• Perioperative management for preeclampsia/eclampsia and severe hypertension?
• For patients with cardiovascular disease, the most common problem under anesthesia is...
• Intraoperative anaphylaxis: what is the initial management and epinephrine dosing in an adult?
• Suspected pulmonary embolism in the perioperative period: initial steps and definitive therapy considerations?
• Which statement about end-tidal CO2 is true in CPR context?
• Which step in the ALS sequence is associated with obtaining vascular access?
• Which vagal reflex is listed as a maneuver for dogs?
• For animals with respiratory disease, sigh the patient every _______ minutes to reduce these issues of hypoventilation, atelectasis, and/or apnea.
• Epinephrine given IV is typically administered in what context?
• Which is a common management approach for regional anesthesia-related nerve injury?
• During acute aortic dissection presenting during anesthesia, what are the immediate hemodynamic goals?
• Postoperative nausea and vomiting: which plan constitutes basic multimodal prophylaxis?
• Which statement best describes dosing in obese animals?
• Fewer than __% of veterinary patients are discharged from the hospital following cardiopulmonary arrest. What is the stated percentage?
• Which combination best suggests DIC in obstetric hemorrhage?
• To weigh animals under 5 kg, which scale is recommended?
• Using a Poor Man's Doppler with the femoral pulse, a 'Present' result indicates BP is at least how many mmHg?
• Passive regurgitation during anesthesia is described as fluid draining from the mouth or nose without retching; it is most common in head-down positions and in which animals?
• In a perioperative patient with septic shock after initial fluid resuscitation, which vasopressor is recommended as first-line therapy?
• Which statement best reflects LAST risk management?
• You notice a sudden loss of tidal volume and high peak airway pressure on the ventilator. What are common causes and steps to troubleshoot?
• What is the tachycardia threshold for a cat during stage III anesthesia?
• During maintenance anesthesia, which thermoregulatory change are sighthounds prone to?
• Are obese patients prone to tachypnea during anesthesia?
• In preeclampsia/eclampsia management, what is the role of magnesium sulfate?
• Which statement about intraoperative management of pheochromocytoma crisis is true?
• What is the effect of general anesthesia on renal blood flow?
• Cardiac arrhythmias are common in trauma patients about how many hours after the incident?
• What pump setting is commonly used for pediatric fluid administration?
• During anesthesia, a patient develops bronchospasm not responsive to inhaled bronchodilators. Immediate management includes:
• Electromechanical Dissociation (also called PEA) refers to which scenario?
• Which combination of signs is most characteristic of an air embolism during surgery in the sitting position?
• Shivering during recovery: which option is an effective treatment?
• After ROSC is confirmed, what should be done?
• Respiratory arrest is potentially fatal because it can lead to which of the following?
• During open-chest CPR, the hand is used to firmly pump the heart at ___ times per minute?
• During pulseless electrical activity, which approach best aligns with addressing reversible causes while performing CPR?
• What is the third most common anesthetic complication?
• Which of the following is a normal MAP range for renal disease patients?
• During ALS Step 5, after each 2-minute cycle of BLS, what actions are performed?
• After cardiopulmonary arrest, which rhythm is hardest to treat?
• The most challenging high-risk patient is one with _____ disease; Minimize stress as much as possible.
• Which statement accurately describes the glucose content of IV fluids used for neonates and pediatric patients during anesthesia?
• Which combination of tests is used to assess renal function in anesthetic patients with renal disease?
• What is the recommended epinephrine dosing interval during ACLS for cardiac arrest?
• Defibrillation waveforms for VF/VT can be monophasic or biphasic; which is preferred?
• Antiarrhythmics used to treat VF or VT include which option?
• In solo BLS, after delivering 30 chest compressions, how many rescue breaths are given?
• During obstetric hemorrhage with uterine atony, which agent reduces bleeding by inhibiting fibrinolysis?
• During anesthesia, a sudden rise in peak airway pressures with hypotension most strongly suggests tension pneumothorax. What is the immediate management?
• Which of the following is a normal systolic blood pressure range for renal disease patients?
• Which strategy reduces postoperative delirium risk in older adults?
• Air embolism during surgery in the sitting position: signs and immediate interventions?
• Active process during or after anesthesia that is usually accompanied by retching; common in brachycephalic dogs or nonfasted patients. Which term describes this?
• Which side effect should be watched for with Dexmedetomidine in cats?
• Neuromuscular blocker reversal in a patient with myasthenia gravis or suspected pseudocholinesterase deficiency: key considerations?
• Which of the following best describes signs that an animal is too deeply anesthetized?
• Which statement best describes the recommended sequence of actions for hypotension management?
• What is a common complication in patients with diaphragmatic hernia?
• When performing CPR, compressions should be which bpm?
• What is the recommended fasting guideline for water for neonates under 8 weeks?
• In Basic Life Support, after life check, what is the first action?
• Which species is associated with a bradycardia rate as low as 25 bpm during stage III anesthesia?
• Which statement best summarizes initial management priorities for sepsis in the perioperative patient?
• During stage III anesthesia, which species has a tachycardia threshold of greater than 60 bpm?
• Hypotension after neuraxial anesthesia: what are common causes and first-line treatments?
• Normal mean arterial pressure range for renal disease patients?
• How is geriatric anesthetic dosing typically adjusted relative to healthy adults?
• Which of the following is a monitoring step in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias?
• What is the cornerstone drug and initial steps in the treatment of malignant hyperthermia?
• Which factor related to genetics can influence recovery duration?
• In obese animals, which respiratory change is likely under anesthesia?
• Postoperative delirium: which factors increase risk?
• When treating hypotension, crystalloid fluids should be administered at rates of how many mL/kg/hr?
• What substance should not be used on ECG leads; which should be used instead?
• Which inotrope is preferred if heart rate is normal to support blood pressure?
• What is the most common anesthetic complication, usually secondary to excessive depth?
• Which condition is a concern for hepatic disease under anesthesia?
• Brachycephalic cats are typically not as challenging to intubate as dogs because...
• Risk factors for postoperative nausea and vomiting and a basic multimodal prophylaxis plan?
• Intratracheal doses for ALS are usually how many times the IV dose?
• How often should the soda lime in anesthesia circuits be changed?
• What is the correct four-step sequence for stabilizing a hypotensive patient?
• Which step in the ALS sequence is focused on administration of reversal agents?
• In pulseless electrical activity occurring in the operating room, what is the immediate management?
• What is the typical presentation of amniotic fluid embolism and immediate resuscitation steps?
• Which statement best describes a cause of prolonged recovery related to anesthesia depth?
• During intraoperative cardiac arrest, which of the following best describes the initial ACLS steps to initiate?
• Geriatric patients have reduced anesthetic requirements to about ________ of the healthy animal dose.
• During chest compressions, compress which fraction of the chest width to allow re-expansion between compressions?
• If a patient is tachypneic but anesthetic depth, temperature, and vitals appear normal, vaporizer setting should usually be left unchanged and the condition will correct itself within how many minutes?
• Which action should be taken first when addressing hypotension in this context?
• What is the appropriate initial management for a febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction?
• In a difficult airway scenario, what is the initial step according to current airway guidelines?
• How should you manage perioperative glucose control in diabetic patients?
• If laryngospasm persists after initial oxygenation and jaw thrust, what is the next step in management?
• Which statement best describes the use of dextrose-containing fluids in neonates and pediatric anesthesia?
• The new CPR initiative called RECOVER stands for what?
• What is a common drug interaction concern when a patient on beta-blockers receives a vasopressor during anesthesia?
• Which rhythm is not among the four most commonly observed rhythms after CPA?
• ROSC stands for which of the following?
• In neonates and pediatric patients, anesthetic doses should be decreased to what fraction of the adult dose?
• Which vagal maneuver is listed for use in dogs?
• How does the risk of local anesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) differ between pediatric and elderly patients, and which dosing principle helps minimize risk?
• Which practice is not recommended for preventing hypothermia and shivering in the perioperative period?
• Seizures are seen with which anesthesia context and must be differentiated from Emergence Delirium?
• During stage III anesthesia, which species has the highest heart rate as bradycardia occurs?
• An Alpha-2 Adrenergic Agonist such as Dexdomitor can cause peripheral vasoconstriction leading to pale mucous membranes. Which drug is given as an example?
• Which opioid is hydrophilic and does not pass into the mother's milk?
• In solo BLS, which method is used for ventilation after compressions?
• Which combination of monitoring tools is recommended to assess oxygenation and ventilation during arrhythmia management?
• Brachycephalic cats versus dogs in airway management: true statement.
• Patients are considered neonates when they are younger than 6 weeks; pediatric when they are younger than how many months?
• What is the second most common anesthetic complication, often occurs secondary to excessive depth?
• ________ may result from rapid shallow respirations in obese animals under anesthesia.
• Key differences in pediatric airway emergencies compared to adults?
• If breathing does not resume after how many minutes of bagging should you consult the DVM?
• What ethical and medicolegal principles guide decision-making during intraoperative emergencies when the patient cannot consent?
• Normal systolic blood pressure range for renal disease patients?
• Pulseless Electrical Activity is also known as which term?
• Which groups exhibit decreased plasma protein binding of drugs and inefficient hepatic metabolism compared with adults?
• It is common for another cardiac arrest within ___ hours of ROSC?
• A patient develops chest pain and ECG changes suggesting myocardial ischemia during the perioperative period. What is the initial management?
• PAC stands for which of the following?
• What infection prevention measure is critical for immunocompromised patients regarding antibiotic prophylaxis timing?
• During recovery, sighthounds are prone to which thermoregulatory change?
• Premedication that is avoided with Cesarean deliveries?
• Hyperkalemia in the perioperative patient: common etiologies and initial management?
• During ALS Step 3, which monitoring modalities are used?
• Which factor is considered a patient-specific factor influencing recovery?
• What is the appropriate immediate management for suspected aspiration of gastric contents during induction or emergence?
• Which of the following represents signs of fluid overload in an awake patient?
• Which rhythm is associated with a flatline on the ECG but no usable heartbeat or pulse?
• Post-dural puncture headache management after regional anesthesia: which statement is true?
• Drugs that should be avoided in patients with hepatic disease because they are highly protein bound and may have increased effects due to hypoproteinemia.
• In high-risk patients with respiratory disease, which practice is recommended to minimize respiratory complications?
• During stage III anesthesia, which species has a tachycardia threshold of greater than 140 bpm?
• Permanent brain damage from hypoxia occurs if oxygen delivery to the brain is not restored within how many minutes?
• Which problems can lead to cardiac dysfunction?
• What is the essential initial step in malignant hyperthermia management?
• Arterial line complications: how do you recognize and respond to catheter occlusion or infiltration?
• One way ROSC is confirmed is by increasing concentrations of which parameter?
• Regional anesthesia can lead to postoperative nerve injury. Which mechanisms are commonly implicated?
• Which value represents the tachycardia threshold for the Cow during stage III anesthesia?
• In acute aortic dissection during anesthesia, what is a key strategy besides HR/BP control?
• Which signal indicates the need to change soda lime in anesthesia circuits?
• In intraoperative pulmonary edema due to LV failure, what is the role of PEEP?
• Signs and urgent management of thyroid storm in the perioperative period?
• For patients with respiratory disease, oxygen-carrying capabilities should be assessed by...
• Crystalloid fluids stay in the intravascular space for less than how many hours?
• In intraoperative anaphylaxis, which vasopressor choice is appropriate?
• During regional anesthesia, what immediate signs indicate intravascular injection during a nerve block, and what should be done?
• A patient with a known latex allergy is undergoing surgery. What precautions should be taken?
• What is the discharge percentage after CPR in veterinary patients as reported?
• Which value represents the tachycardia threshold for the Cow during stage III anesthesia?
• Which drug classes are listed as capable of causing tachycardia during anesthesia?
• Pupillary signs that suggest deep anesthesia include which of the following?
• Which option lists tests used to monitor renal function in anesthetic patients?
• During anesthesia in neonates and pediatric patients, inhalants have an increased risk for which of the following?
• Which combination indicates poor perfusion during anesthesia?
• For diaphragmatic hernia, preoxygenation is advised for 5 to 10 minutes prior to surgery and you should avoid which head position?
• Patients receiving a Cesarean delivery are at risk for going into which condition during surgery?
• Which monitoring approach is emphasized for septic shock management during anesthesia?
• Opioid-induced respiratory depression in recovery: key steps in management?
• During apnea management, ventilation is required only if end-tidal CO2 readings exceed which range?
• Which postoperative phenomenon is described by paddling and vocalization in animals not given premeds, in older animals, and in cats given high doses of opioids?
• If breathing has not resumed after 15 minutes of bagging, what is the recommended action?
• During maintenance anesthesia, sighthounds are prone to which condition?
• If local anesthetic systemic toxicity is suspected during a regional anesthesia, what is the recommended treatment?
• Before premedication in renal disease, how long should water be offered?